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Actualizado en
28 may 2018

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  • Alemán
  • Japonés
  • Chino simplificado
Pregunta de Chino simplificado

Hello everyone. I want to ask; why is it that in some mandarin word, the second syllable is pronounced in a neutral tones even though the pinyin version of the word clearly have a tone mark whether it be the 4th,3rd,1st, or 2nd tone? I often see this in a Chinese dictionary called pleco and even in speech. For example why does word/phrase:
好消息(hǎo xiāo xī) meaning good news is pronounced (hěn xiāo xi) where the first tone in the second syllable is omitted.

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Hello everyone. I want to ask; why is it that in some mandarin word, the second syllable is pronounced in a neutral tones even though the pinyin version of the word clearly have a tone mark whether it be the 4th,3rd,1st, or 2nd tone? I often see this in a Chinese dictionary called pleco and even in speech. For example why does word/phrase:
好消息(hǎo xiāo xī) meaning good news is pronounced (hěn xiāo xi) where the first tone in the second syllable is omitted.
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